Does euthyphro define piety to Socrates satisfaction?



Why Socrates is not satisfied with Euthyphro’s definitions of piety?

Euthyphro’s first definition of piety is what he is doing now, that is, prosecuting his father for manslaughter (5d). Socrates rejects Euthyphro’s definition, because it is not a definition of piety, and is only an example of piety, and does not provide the essential characteristic that makes pious actions pious.

How does Euthyphro define piety?

Definition 1 – Euthyphro. Piety is what the Gods love and Impiety is what the Gods hate. Objections to Definition 1. There are many Gods, whom all may not agree on what particular things are pious or impious. It therefore means that certain acts or deeds could therefore be considered both pious and impious.

How did Euthyphro attempt to define piety and impiety to Socrates?





In reply, Euthyphro advances another statement. He says, “Piety is what is dear to the gods and impiety is that which is not dear to them.” Upon examination by Socrates, this statement turns out to be no more satisfactory than the former one.

What does Socrates think about piety?

Socrates responds, “Come then, let us examine what we mean. An action or man dear to the gods is pious, but an action or a man hated by the gods is impious” (7a). Socrates and Euthyphro here agree that piety is defined in relation to the gods, specifically according to what actions they hold dear.

What is wrong with Euthyphro’s first answer to the question what is piety?

Socrates claims, namely, not to know what virtue is. Euthyphro’s First response (prosecuting a wrongdoer) identified too small a part of piety. In other words, the answer had a scope problem: it’s scope was insufficient to answer the question (6d).

How many definitions of piety did Euthyphro give?





In this dialogue Euthyphro gives Socrates four different definitions of what he believes piety is, none of which prove satisfactory to Socrates, leaving the question unanswered in the end.

What is the main point of Euthyphro?

Euthyphro suggests that what is holy is what is agreeable to the gods, in response to which Socrates points out that the gods often quarrel, so what is agreeable to one might not be agreeable to all.

How does Euthyphro first try to define piety and holiness?

1st Definition
Euthyphro’s first definition is based on what he is doing at the moment; that is, prosecuting his father for manslaughter charges. His definition is that holy means punishing those who commit acts of unholiness the way he is doing to his father.

What is Socrates argument against Euthyphro?

Socrates and Euthyphro both contemplate the first option: surely the gods love the pious because it is the pious. But this means, Socrates argues, that we are forced to reject the second option: the fact that the gods love something cannot explain why the pious is the pious (10d).

What is Socrates famous challenge to Euthyphro’s third definition?



Socrates’ Objection: According to Euthyphro, the gods sometimes disagree among themselves about questions of justice. So some things are loved by some gods and hated by others. On this definition, these things will be both pious and impious, which makes no sense. 3rd Definition: Piety is what is loved by all the gods.

Why do Socrates and Euthyphro reject the definition of piety as what all the gods love quizlet?

He rejects it because, as Euthyphro answers, there is no way that the gods can actually benefit from our sacrifices: they are all-powerful and do not need our help. SECOND: Which brings us back to the second definition that they accept it because they love it.